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tzeentchling9
03-12-2012, 01:39 PM
When a warlock transfers damage to a beast, does the beast take the same damage that the warlock would have taken or does the beast's armor change the amount of damage?

For example:

A Juggernaut hits pMorghoul with his ice ax and rolls a total of 25 damage(2d6=6 + P+S19).
pMorghoul probably does not want 12 points of damage(25-ARM13=12), so he transfers it to a nearby Gladiator.

Does the Gladiator take 12 points of damage or 6(25-ARM19=6)?

Thanks.

Valander
03-12-2012, 01:40 PM
The amount of damage transferred is what the beast takes; you don't recalculate it. Your example would result in 12 damage to the Gladiator.

Cannotcope
03-12-2012, 01:41 PM
The gladiator takes 12 points of damage.
The damage is transferred not the hit.

tzeentchling9
03-12-2012, 01:44 PM
I thought so. One of my friends is convinced you recalculate the new armor. Is there a rule I can reference?

Valander
03-12-2012, 01:49 PM
I thought so. One of my friends is convinced you recalculate the new armor. Is there a rule I can reference?
Damage Transference is described on Primal p. 77. The example on that page clearly demonstrates the damage is not re-calculated.

tzeentchling9
03-12-2012, 03:30 PM
I think he might be confusing that the Damage is getting transferred, not the Damage Roll.