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View Full Version : Losing incorporeal = losing an effect or having an effect applied ?



Crate123
08-03-2013, 07:37 AM
Given that:
"If a model would be affected by a second instance of an effect, the second instance is not applied and does not change anything about the first instance, including its expiration. If the effect has a duration, this means it expires when the first applied effect expired." 29 of prime

Does losing incorporeal from making a free strike counts as being affected by an effect ?
The importance of this is that you could make a free strike during the opponents turn, then make an attack during your own turn and then at the start of the opponents next turn you would go incorporeal again.

solkan
08-03-2013, 07:44 AM
Where is the "second instance of an effect" in question?

When a model is Incorporeal, if it makes an attack it loses incorporeal for one round. When the no-longer-Incorporeal model makes an attack, it isn't Incorporeal (it has lost the Incorporeal rule for the stated duration) so the last sentence of the Incorporeal rule doesn't apply again.

Valander
08-03-2013, 07:48 AM
Where is the "second instance of an effect" in question?

When a model is Incorporeal, if it makes an attack it loses incorporeal for one round. When the no-longer-Incorporeal model makes an attack, it isn't Incorporeal (it has lost the Incorporeal rule for the stated duration) so the last sentence of the Incorporeal rule doesn't apply again.
This is correct.

Crate123
08-03-2013, 08:03 AM
Ofcourse, I didnt think that far.