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seebs
06-05-2015, 01:41 PM
If a warlock (or warcaster) transfers damage, is the warlock or the attacker the "source" of the damage?

For instance, imagine that I have Respawn on a warbeast, and I take damage. I transfer the damage to the warbeast. Has the warbeast been damaged by an enemy, or by my warlock? Because if it's "the warlock", the creature won't respawn. For something like sacrificial pawn, it's pretty clear that the attacker is still the source of the damage, but the damage transfer ability seems slightly different; for instance, if there's overflow damage, the warlock still takes it, and the warlock is still considered to be "damaged" even if there's no damage left after the transfer.

Similarly, if an attack does something "when it damages a target", does the warbeast also get that effect?

Leonard_Dukes
06-05-2015, 01:53 PM
If a warlock (or warcaster) transfers damage, is the warlock or the attacker the "source" of the damage?

The source of damage is considered to be "transferring damage to the warbeast". It doesn't originate from a particular model, friendly or enemy, and is not considered to be from an attack, friendly or enemy.


For instance, imagine that I have Respawn on a warbeast, and I take damage. I transfer the damage to the warbeast. Has the warbeast been damaged by an enemy, or by my warlock?

It has not been damaged by an enemy attack, but by a damage transfer.


Similarly, if an attack does something "when it damages a target", does the warbeast also get that effect?

No.

seebs
06-05-2015, 03:46 PM
Ah-hah. So respawn won't proc off a damage transfer. Worth knowing.