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havocentral
09-24-2015, 01:07 AM
1 For geomancy, who needs LOS, the caster or the beast?

2. Since geomancy says the caster casts the spell, if say orin midminter is on board, can the beast geomance under the bubble?

3. geomancy isnt considered arcnode or channeling right?

4. Crevasse - can you choose a direction anywhere originating from the destroyed model?

5. Shamblers - I dealt 6 damage to the gator guy, and my opponent dealt a damage to a frog, made a tough check, passed, dealt a damage, passed, dealt a damage failed, moved to another model, repeat. I assumed you would have to distribute all damage simultaneously

6 shamblers - i also watched him - attack with all the shamblers, then saac them to boost things after, is that possible

7 If a model is forced to charge but haas a speed debuff, what happens?

8 Do melee weapons ignore cover and concelment, i was under the assumption that attacking over a wall gave them +2DEF. but im not sure anymore. Same goes with attacking into a druids cloud with reach, you are not in the cloud, therefore they should still have concealment. Makes no since.

9 can you shake stationary

thats it for now

Mod_Neldar
09-24-2015, 01:52 AM
0. One question or group of closely related questions per thread next time.
1. The beast.
2. The beast casts the spell, but the warlock is considered to have cast it for purposes of who owns the spell.
3. Correct.
4. Front arc of the boxed model only.
5. No. Assign it all simultaneously then make checks.
6. Perfectly legal.
7. It sacrifices movement and action.
8. Yes. Concealment and cover apply only to ranged and magic attacks. However there is a separate penalty for attacking over a wall that grants +2 defense to the target.
9. Yes.

Stormpuppy_Infantry
09-24-2015, 01:57 AM
For the next time, please ask one question per one thread unless the questions are closely related. Also such simple questions are can be done at New Members Area (https://privateerpressforums.com/forumdisplay.php?4-New-Members-Area) or General Discussion Forum (https://privateerpressforums.com/forumdisplay.php?2-Privateer-Press-Discussion) as well.


1: The warbeast that uses Geomancy casts the spell, so the model using Geomancy is the point of origin.

2: There was a typo and what you want to say is 'Orin Midwinter', right? Also Orin Midwinter himself does nothing to do with spellcasting, so you should be asking for when he uses Null Magic, right?

The warbeast that uses Geomancy casts the spell, not its controlling warlock. So if it is within the area of Null Magic it cannot casts a spell. Its warlock is just considered as casting the spell, like as considered as 'this model' in the description of the spell or the ownership of the upkeep spell.

3: Sure. At first it is not channeling. The warbeast casts the spell.

4: No. You must pick one eligible model to be the attack's target.
edit: Neldar is correct.

5: 'gator guy' means Bokor in Gatorman Bokor & Bog Trog Swamp Shamblers unit, right?

Your opponent is incorrect. Bokor must divide the damage first, and after choose the model to be damage instead they are suffers the damage and can be disabled.

6: Nothing prevents that.

7: In the description of charge rule it says how it does when a model must charge but cannot charge.

8: Melee weapons does not ignore cover and concealment. Remember that cover and concealment are applied only against ranged and magic attacks, not melee attacks.

When making a melee attack through a linear obstacle, the defender has +2 DEF, but it is not related with cover or concealment.

9: I can't, but model with Focus: Shake Effect, Fury: Shake effect or Shake Effects(of Warbeast models) can do it by spend either 1 focus point/1 fury point/forced.

havocentral
09-24-2015, 11:14 AM
Why make 5 seperate threads for these simple questions?

This forum should have a Q A thread, post a question, get answer. would stop tons of threads from appearing

Leonard_Dukes
09-24-2015, 11:19 AM
Why make 5 seperate threads for these simple questions?

This forum should have a Q A thread, post a question, get answer. would stop tons of threads from appearing

Mostly to keep the thread itself clean and concise.

There's no reason for a thread to have 20 posts answering/discussing 5 questions, when each question can have its own 2-post thread: one question, one answer.

juckto
09-24-2015, 11:48 AM
Questions from non-new players aren't that simple to answer. Some spawn 20 replies of argument, counterargument, precedent, exceptions, and general gnashing of teeth.

Keeping it to one question per thread stops it turning into a 100 reply thread.

DarkLegacy
09-24-2015, 12:01 PM
It also makes it super difficult to search a thread for an answer, along with juckto's and Leonard_Dukes' points.

Aerospider
09-25-2015, 12:03 AM
The Geomancy bit about the beast being the one to cast the spell surprised me. I guess the "model's controller is considered to have cast the spell" isn't as definitive as I'd thought.

So just to check - does the beast use the controller's Fury to boost the spell rolls, or must it be forced? Or can the spell not be boosted at all?

vintersbastard
09-25-2015, 12:11 AM
The Geomancy bit about the beast being the one to cast the spell surprised me. I guess the "model's controller is considered to have cast the spell" isn't as definitive as I'd thought.Actually, it's pretty clear, as long as you see the distinction between present tense ("casting") and perfect tense ("having cast").


So just to check - does the beast use the controller's Fury to boost the spell rolls, or must it be forced? Or can the spell not be boosted at all?The beast must be forced to boost.

Aerospider
09-25-2015, 12:31 AM
Actually, it's pretty clear, as long as you see the distinction between present tense ("casting") and perfect tense ("having cast").

The beast must be forced to boost.

Maybe I'm missing some Warmahordes nuance (still learning after 18 months of playing) but I don't see any distinction either stated or implied.

So if the beast is forced to cast the spell and is forced to boost it and is the point of origin and is the one casting the spell, what does the controller sentence apply to? I.e. What does "having cast" mean as opposed to "casting"?

Stormpuppy_Infantry
09-25-2015, 01:06 AM
Maybe I'm missing some Warmahordes nuance (still learning after 18 months of playing) but I don't see any distinction either stated or implied.

So if the beast is forced to cast the spell and is forced to boost it and is the point of origin and is the one casting the spell, what does the controller sentence apply to? I.e. What does "having cast" mean as opposed to "casting"?

The controller is not casts the spell, but it is the owner of the spell. So it is still 'this model' of the spell's description, and is the owner of the upkeep spell, as I said already.

Examples:

A Skarlock Thrall attached by Goreshade the Bastard uses Spell Slave and use his Bleed spell. This spell's effect is:

When Bleed destroys a living enemy model, this model heals d3 damage points.

If Skarlock Thrall has Bleed spell and it destroys a living enemy model by Bleed, then Skarlock Thrall is 'this model' and it will heals the damage. But, Spell Slave says that the warcaster is considered to have cast that spell, so the warcaster, Goreshade the Bastard, is considered as this model of the spell's description, and he heals d3 damage points instead when Skarlock Thrall destroys a living enemy model by Bleed.

The wording of Spell Slave is almost same as the wording of Geomancy, so it is safe to think that both of them works almost same.


A Woldwarden in the battlegroup of Cassius the Oathkeeper uses Geomancy, casts its warlock's spell Curse of Shadows. Woldwarden is the caster of the spell, but Cassius has the spell, so Cassius is the owner of the upkeep spell.

Aerospider
09-25-2015, 01:59 AM
Ahh! Gotcha. Many thanks.

But not too many - I much preferred the wrong way!