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Pulse-Czar
01-28-2011, 12:34 PM
I was hoping to get some clarification regarding the rules of a warlock casting an animus from a warbeast in its control area. The rulebook's wording isn't totally clear to me, here's the excerpt: "[the warlock] can tap the animus of a warbeast in its battlegroup that is in its control area and cast it as if it were a spell of its own. A warbeast must be forced to use its animus. when a warbeast uses its animus, it is not considered to be casting a spell, but when the warbeast's controller taps its animus, the controller is considered to be casting a spell as well as using an animus.A model can cast a spell or be forced to use its animus only during its activation" (From page 78)

I play Skorne, so I'll use an example from that faction to make sure I know what's going on.

Let's say that pMorghoul wants to use the Titan Gladiator's animus, "Rush." Rush costs 2 fury, and is range 6". As I understand it, when Morghoul uses this animus, he is considered to be the point of origin, so he can cast it on any friendly warbeast within 6" of himself. So when the Gladiator is forced to use this animus, is he given the full fury cost of 2? Does Morghoul also pay 2 fury, or is it considered paid for by the Gladiator?

If Morghoul followed this course of action during his activation, if the Gladiator were activated later that turn, could he use Rush for himself or is it considered to have been used already?

Thanks for the help.

Jamie P
01-28-2011, 12:52 PM
In short, treat it exactly as a spell. So Morghoul would be the point of origin and the spell would cost him 2 fury.

When a warbeast uses its animus think of it as also casting a spell but instead of losing two fury it is forced for two fury.

Forcing or casting an animus is only done during an activation (like spells). A model can only have one animus on it at any given time, so a rush caste on an already rushed gladiator would have no effect, regardless of origin.

Pulse-Czar
01-28-2011, 01:03 PM
Ok, so a warlock using a warbeast's animus is effectively a double cost situation, the warlock pays the fury cost and the warbeast is also forced to gain the fury cost.

What if Morghoul, during his activation, cast Rush from the Gladiator on a nearby Cyclops, could the Gladiator during his later activation cast Rush on himself?

rydiafan
01-28-2011, 01:05 PM
Ok, so a warlock using a warbeast's animus is effectively a double cost situation, the warlock pays the fury cost and the warbeast is also forced to gain the fury cost.

No.

When the warlock uses it, the warlock spends. When the warbeast uses it the warbeast is forced. Those two things are unrelated.


What if Morghoul, during his activation, cast Rush from the Gladiator on a nearby Cyclops, could the Gladiator during his later activation cast Rush on himself?

Yes.

When Morghoul casts it he will spend two fury and nothing happens to the Gladiator. Then, when the Gladiator uses it, the Gladiator is forced for two fury and nothing happens to Morghoul.

Pulse-Czar
01-28-2011, 01:50 PM
No.
When the warlock uses it, the warlock spends. When the warbeast uses it the warbeast is forced. Those two things are unrelated.

This is what was confusing me in the rulebook, the way it is written it seems it could go either way. Looking more closely at the wording, this seems to make sense that when a warbeast uses an animus, it's forced to do so, and when a warlock taps an animus, he simply pays the fury cost.

Image
02-25-2011, 02:50 PM
To expand on this question, can a warlock cast several animi in a single turn? Warbeasts are only able to utilize their animi once a turn, so can a warlock only cast one or can he cast several?

Pyrodude32
02-25-2011, 02:53 PM
You are able to cast multiple animi from your warlock.

Technically your warlock does not cast animi, they are simply considered to be spells and they follow all of the normal rules for casting spells.

Image
02-25-2011, 02:57 PM
Thank you! :)